The above paragraph made sense to me when I first read it. That God could make complex good out of simple evil really made sense - there are examples of this all over the place. The reason why I'm blogging about it now, is that my viewpoint has changed, and I was hoping that by posting this, maybe you could help me figure this out.
The same night I read Chapter 7, I was also reading the book of Acts. The following passage really stuck out considering what I had previously read in The Problem of Pain: "With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field; there he fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out." (Acts 1:18).
As a child, I had a strong sense of what was fair and what was not. Evidentally, I have retained some of this, because after reading the verse in Acts, a voice in my head was screaming "That's not fair! Why did it end that way? What did Judas do to deserve such a horrible death??" Besides the obvious being that Judas turned Jesus over to the Pharisees, I find it extremely unfair that Judas died for his "wickedness" after simply following God's will and fulfilling the prophecy of Jesus' death.
"As soon as Judas took the bread, Satan entered into him." (John 13:27) So yes, Satan was working through Judas when Judas was doing his traitorous acts. And therefore, Judas should rightfully be sent to hell. But I find it troubling to say that it was God's will that Judas go to hell when the very reason he did what he did was to fulfill prophecy. Did Judas really have a choice in this matter? The Bible makes it sound like Jesus knew who was going to deceive him before it happened. Therefore, according to the Trinity, God knew who the traitor was going to be.
The way Lewis words this situation, in Chapter 7, sounds like Judas didn't know the full consequences of what he was doing. But in doing such evil, he is used by God, without his own knowledge or consent, to produce the complex good. I realize that at this point, Lewis may not be speaking explicitly of Judas, but the connection could plausibly be formed.
Matthew 27:3-5 illustrates Judas' remorse when he finds out what will happen to Jesus because of his actions. According to the story in Matthew, Judas ends his life by hanging himself. This obviously shows that Judas was sorry for his actions. And yet, Acts still uses the word "wickedness" when referring to Judas.
So I guess the summation of this long-winded, rambling entry is this: Because Judas was doing what he did to fulfill a prophecy, and showed remorse after the fact, will he ultimately end up in hell based on his actions? And if so, can it be said that it was God's will for it to be this way?
When I type, my thoughts don't always come out in a logical order. So, if any (or all) of this is confusing to you, please let me know! I will try and make it more sensible for you. Please tell me your thoughts on this matter - I would appreciate some feedback.
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